Quantum correlation and Bell's inequality

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In quantiki website (https://www.quantiki.org/wiki/bell-state) it is mentioned that verification of quantum correlation in rotated basis states is more important for quantum correlation. I also found in the paper "Malte C Tichy et al 2011 J. Phys. B: At. Mol. Opt. Phys. 44 192001" that "A SSR (superselection rule) that prevents a local basis rotation, e.g., may enforce that the entanglement which is formally present in a state effectively reduces to a classical correlation."

From these statements can I conclude that change of measurement basis somehow differentiate classical and quantum correlation.

Sakh10

Posted 2021-02-22T11:02:00.327

Reputation: 143

Question was closed 2021-02-25T12:49:45.123

1What exactly is your question? – JSdJ – 2021-02-22T12:54:20.500

can I conclude that change of measurement basis somehow differentiate classical and quantum correlation? Or what is the difference between quantum and classical correlation from measurement basis perspective – Sakh10 – 2021-02-22T13:12:19.583

can you include the exact definitions of "classical" and "quantum" correlations used here? Are talking of "(non)classicality" strictly in the sense of impossibility of an LHV model, or something else? – glS – 2021-02-22T15:55:12.843

I'm also somewhat confused by the question. What do you mean with "a change of measurement basis" exactly? To observe nonlocal correlations you usually do measurements in different measurement bases. Are you asking whether any choice of measurement basis allows to observe violations? – glS – 2021-02-22T15:58:08.417

Ok forget about the basis. In general how does "classical" and "quantum" correlations differ? – Sakh10 – 2021-02-23T06:09:15.383

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please note that you can edit the question to more specific about what you are asking. All relevant information needed to answer must be in the post itself, not the comments. Anyway, that still depends on the exact definitions you are going by. If you just ask "how do classical and quantum correlations differ" without more specifics, the (useless) answer is that they are defined differently. In the context of Bell nonlocality, "quantum correlations" are usually intended as behaviours which do not admit local hidden variable descriptions. See e.g. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CHSH_inequality

– glS – 2021-02-23T09:12:21.820

No answers