Schopenauer's critique of Kant: the distinction between knowledge of perception from abstract knowledge

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I am reading "The World as Will and Representation" by Arthur Schopenhauer (Norman, J., Welchman, A., & Janaway, C. (Eds.). (2010). Schopenhauer: 'The World as Will and Representation'). In the Appendix of the book titled "Criticism of Kantian philosophy", he writes:

Now I return to Kant’s great error touched on above, the fact that he did not properly distinguish intuitive from abstract cognition, which gave rise to a fatal confusion that we must consider more closely. If he had clearly distinguished intuitive representations from concepts thought merely in the abstract...

I am struggling to understand what Schopenhauer means by "abstract cognition and intuitive cognition". What is the meaning of those two terms in the Kantian framework? And why does Schopenhauer thinks that Kant failed to acknowledge the distinction between the two?

daljit97

Posted 2018-11-07T19:24:44.230

Reputation: 143

See Kant’s understanding of representation on SEP (some translations use "cognition" instead of "representation"). Kant distinguishes them pretty sharply (in modern view the distinction is much blurrier), but apparently not enough for Schopenhauer.

– Conifold – 2018-11-07T22:33:42.807

@Conifold thanks that's helpful. Would you be able to indicate me in the right direction about Schopenhauer's remarks above? – daljit97 – 2018-11-08T02:09:46.077

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See Schopenhauer’s Aesthetics. Roughly, Schopenhauer, unlike Kant, admits intuitive/non-conceptual knowledge expressed in nature and art.

– Conifold – 2018-11-08T22:36:59.117

No answers