Is atheism a property of an individual?

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So this is an argument I'm actually having, silly as it may seem. Can atheism be said to be a property of an individual? His argument is that it the lack of a property is not a property at all. This seems to make little sense to me. The notorious odorlessness and colorlessness of carbon monoxide certainly seem like properties of sorts and from what I've seen on SEP "atheism" certainly seems to meet many of the criteria mentioned, such as that it can be predicated on individuals. What is your stance on this issue?

readyready15728

Posted 2015-09-18T22:48:10.937

Reputation: 111

Question was closed 2015-09-21T17:20:29.697

– readyready15728 – 2015-09-18T23:28:22.250

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You may wish to see http://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/27922/if-p-is-a-property-then-is-not-p-a-property . Also, do you mean being atheist is a property? Because athe-ism is a property is weird for other reasons.

– virmaior – 2015-09-19T03:10:37.523

1Hello. "from what I've seen on SEP "atheism" certainly seems to meet many of the criteria mentioned״ - Which SEP article? Which criteria? – Ram Tobolski – 2015-09-19T22:11:31.863

No answers