What would Nietzsche's response be to these claims?

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  1. "The self (the "I") is the center of moral responsibility."
  2. "Morals express something higher in the human spirit, something more noble and more spiritual."
  3. "Religion constitutes the essence of the moral life."

Just a general response. I want to know if he would be FOR or AGAINST these claims.

user10989

Posted 2014-12-17T08:06:15.963

Reputation:

3Is this homework? What did you do to find the solution yourself? – None – 2014-12-17T10:51:57.477

1Nietzsche at what age? – Drux – 2014-12-17T12:17:58.733

Please don't try to destroy your contributions here! We really appreciate your questions -- and I think you even had an answer on one of these. At any rate it definitely could be useful to someone in the future. – Joseph Weissman – 2014-12-18T03:38:38.333

Nietzsche would simply dismiss 2) and 3) outright. About 1), "Responsibility" has no sense if there is no ultimate morality. (Search "define responsibility" and "define duty" in google). So the first question becomes devoid of meaning. – nakiya – 2014-12-18T06:17:31.850

1Are these just questions you have? Or are they from somewhere? – James Kingsbery – 2014-12-19T18:57:41.320

Answers

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Its not really a question of for and against; but developing your understanding of the question that Nietzsche is discussing, and situating this in Nietzsches text.

For example, a naive view, running along with his phrase 'God is dead' is to think Nietzsche is intent on tearing down religion. However as the synopsis of Julian Youngs book Nietszches philosophy of religion shows:

In his first book, The Birth of Tragedy, Nietzsche observes that Greek tragedy gathered people together as a community in the sight of their gods, and argues that modernity can be rescued from 'nihilism' only through the revival of such a festival.

Nihilism, in some sense, constitutes the negation of all three options that you've listed; and the common view listed here is that the early Nietszche is looking towards reviving the pagan religion in a German context given that Christianity in Europe (as an intellectuel force) appeared to be crumbling under the onslaught of modernity.

This is commonly thought to be a view which did not survive the termination of Nietzsche's early Wagnerianism

ie the infatuation of Nietszches of all things Greek (which is the tail-end of a classical revival that started in the renaissance in Italy).

but Julian Young argues, on the basis of an examination of all of Nietzsche's published works, that his religious communitarianism in fact persists through all his writings. What follows, it is argued, is that the mature Nietzsche is neither an 'atheist', an 'individualist', nor an 'immoralist': he is a German philosopher belonging to a German tradition of conservative communitarianism

Mozibur Ullah

Posted 2014-12-17T08:06:15.963

Reputation: 1

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If you're familiar with Nietzsche's genealogy of morals, the answers to these questions quickly become apparent. (1) is true because the origination of morals is guilt about being weak instead of being strong. (2) is false because morals degrade the human spirit. (3) is true but misleading because religion creates morals but morality is not something that should be chased after so much as it is something that should be cast off by the strong.

Lee Malatesta

Posted 2014-12-17T08:06:15.963

Reputation: 96