How does post-humanism deal with Kants Copernican turn?

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Presumably as a term it decentres the human subject as inherited from Renaissance humanism; this continuing the Copernican revolution of decentring the human habitus. This suggests it bypasses Kants Copernican turn - which returned or re-enthoned human subjectivity as the originary point of metaphysics and its associated epistemology. One supposes also its an ancillary project of post-modernity.

How does post-humanism effect this detour around Kant or through him?

Mozibur Ullah

Posted 2014-06-21T04:29:29.453

Reputation: 1

No answers