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This question is based on many assumptions:

- That since universe could not appear out of itself and could not be created by someone there has to be a other part of 'universe' (I am not sure if universe is the right word to use here but lets say that this is where our universe came from).
- That other part is 'illogical' at least in rule that it allows things to appear out of nowhere.
- Logic appears only in space-time (logic is based on axioms that do not require proof - they came from observing events happening in time, therefore time and logic can be considered as inseparable and logic to be seen as part or by-product of time. When I am talking about axioms I am not limiting myself to only Peano Axioms but to any axioms that are used, as they all have been 'invented' by living people observing space-time.).
- Let's consider that each additional dimension like time (this is again speculation but for the sake of argument lets consider dimension as layer or sub-part or whole system we call universe) adds some additional rules to the table, like time adds events in space that follow rules of logic for example, or height, width and length bring volume, and width and length surface.
- Removing dimensions in universe takes things that dimensions bring like events, volume out of the universe.
- At last dimension one should end up with dot.
- What is left after taking all dimensions and last one off should be that part where all our universe came from.

Is there a method that by reducing parts (dimensions and rules that they bring) one could boil down so he would obtain some information about 'illogical' part of universe, the one that universe supposedly came from?

I do understand that this is not a very well phrased question, I have edited it already and will try do work on it more, please leave comments and I will try to improve on this post to the best of my ability.

2Could you explain what you mean by "logic appears only in space-time"? – Hunan Rostomyan – 2014-05-09T08:32:31.733

@HunanRostomyan logic is based on axioms that do not require proof and came from observing things happening in time, therefore they can be considered as inseparable (time and logic) and logic seen as part or by-product of time. – Matas Vaitkevicius – 2014-05-09T08:40:39.510

1I'm sorry; I just can't make sense of the question. I hope I'm alone in that. Bits and pieces of it made sense, but overall, very hard to parse. (Asking questions is very hard. I know you're trying to do a good job at it. I hope you're able to polish this to a point where even I can understand it. Best of luck.) – Hunan Rostomyan – 2014-05-09T08:52:21.330

@HunanRostomyan could you please point me to the parts of question that do not 'connect' or are ambiguous, I will try to improve on it. – Matas Vaitkevicius – 2014-05-09T09:01:32.307

2Would you by any chance be interested in discussing in a chatroom what you're trying to get answered? (I don't want to populate this place with more comments.) I'll be in room The Symposium, if you want to discuss it. – Hunan Rostomyan – 2014-05-09T09:07:59.740

Good post and phrasing is fine, perhaps after edit. This dot part is what most religions and thinkers call the

ONE, the idea that everything is just one thing. – Asphir Dom – 2014-05-09T11:58:23.723