How did Antiquity deal with the disappearance of the Transcendent?


In Western Philosophy, Existentialism heeding Nietzches call was the first philosophy that dealt with the loss of the transcendent in a formal way.

Whereas prior to him, it anchored, or rather was the telos of Hegels thought, and Kant placed it beyond the possibility of any critical inquiry.

Reading back into history, and taking Plato as beginning philosophy, that is primarily logos rather than mythos, can we take Platos Forms as a return to the transcendent in the mode of logos, that which led to the dispersal of the Homerian gods?

(One notes that Plato is after the Milesian materialists).

Mozibur Ullah

Posted 2014-04-24T09:47:51.160

Reputation: 1

Too complicated! summarize it in one word (c) Bender. – Asphir Dom – 2014-04-24T13:13:11.530

Have you seen SEP's Plato's Myths?

– labreuer – 2014-04-24T14:35:21.263

@labreur: no - thanks for pointing it out; I've been looking for something like that - do you know of something similar for Aristotle? – Mozibur Ullah – 2014-04-24T14:49:42.523

No answers