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I have a question about the interchangeability of the ing-gerund and the -of- noun phrase. Take the phrases "murdering a man" and "the murder of a man":
1a ..arrested [somebody] on suspicion of murdering a man....
1b ..arrested [somebody] on suspicion of the murder of a man....
Google searches returned hits for both the patterns in 1a and 1b. So, it seems that "murdering [somebody]" and "the murder of [somebody]" are quite interchangeable.
But for the phrase "using a stolen credit card" and "the use of a stolen credit card"
2a ..arrested [somebody] on suspicion of using a stolen credit ....
2b ..arrested [somebody] on suspicion of the use of a stolen credit ....
Google searches got some hits for pattern 2a, but close to zero hit for pattern 2b. So, "using a stolen credit card" and "the use of a stolen credit card" are not really interchangeable.
So, the ing-gerund and the -of- noun phrase are really not the same? What do native speakers think?
Your question title is much broader than the examples you mention. In most sentences where you'd be using gerunds (such as this one), you can't simply exchange one form for the other! – Mr Lister – 2016-03-27T20:26:40.943