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Recently I came to know that there is a construction "Many a man" which is equivalent to "many men". But I also noticed that the former construction is considered as singular, e.g.
Many a man has lost his life at sea.
But for the later construction we go something like this,
Many men have lost their lives at sea.
I am quite confused in the former construction. It behaves like we are talking of a single man but we are actually talking of many men. Please explain in detail why it is so.
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Take a look at http://english.stackexchange.com/questions/25555/usage-of-many-vs-many-a, especially the comments on the answers. Note that, like many things in language, there may not be a very good answer to the question "why". Languages don't always follow logical rules; sometimes things just are the way they are.
– Nate Eldredge – 2015-09-05T15:53:23.730@NateEldredge Thanks for the link. Infact after thinking carefully I found that there is similar usage in my language too. I guess it has something to do with linguistics. – user31782 – 2015-09-05T16:05:55.257