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I have a question, I have read this sentence:
the Western powers now yielded when they should have resisted
but I do not understand why they use the present perfect at the end of the sentence 'have resisted' after the auxiliary verb should.
Mohamad
Posted 2015-05-17T22:35:38.923
Reputation: 617
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Here is the best answer to your question:
We can use 'should have' to talk about past events that did not happen.
- I should have let her know what was happening but I forgot.
- He should have sent everybody a reminder by email.
- They should have remembered that their guests don't eat pork.
Mohamad
Posted 2015-05-17T22:35:38.923
Reputation: 617
Good reference. :) – LawrenceC – 2015-05-17T22:57:56.307
1That is not a present perfect. The expression "they should have resisted" uses a non-finite perfect *"have resisted"*, and that "have" is not tensed. The tensed verb is the verb "should". – F.E. – 2015-05-17T23:41:56.043
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Mohammad, please allow at least a day or two before accepting an answer. For info about why this is helpful, see “Not so fast! (When should I accept my answer?)”. This question really deserves an in-depth response.
– Ben Kovitz – 2015-05-18T02:06:03.723