Religious insensitivity


I was reading an article on the sepoy mutiny in India which says,"In Britain and in the West, it was almost always portrayed as a series of unreasonable and bloodthirsty uprisings spurred by falsehoods about religious insensitivity." The author of the article is an English, by "religious insensitivity" does he mean that the mutiny was against Christians?


Posted 2015-03-07T14:54:25.137

Reputation: 145


It's about what caused the mutiny. A Wikipedia page says, "Others have stressed that by 1857, some Indian soldiers, reading the presence of missionaries as a sign of official intent, were convinced that the Company was masterminding mass conversions of Hindus and Muslims to Christianity."

– Damkerng T. – 2015-03-07T15:05:38.710

1No. You have to parse the sentence in the context in which it is written. The sentence cites what a group of people (Britain and in the West) thought about what may have caused the rebellion (falsehoods about religious insensitivity)- not what actually caused it (British rule), nor how it has come to be viewed (the first outbreak of the independence movement) by some other people (Indians). – Gary – 2015-03-07T16:13:21.030

By the way, it [the insensitivity] involves Christians, but is not against Christians. – Gary – 2015-03-07T16:20:59.667

2This question needs more background information included in the question. – user3169 – 2015-03-07T17:17:52.000



In my history courses, I was told that:

  • The British Army of the time used an ammunition cartridge that required the troop to bite off a piece of each round.
  • The round included a grease.
  • The mutineers believed a rumor that the grease was made from a mixture of pig fat and cow fat.
  • Muslims believe it is profane to eat pigs.
  • Hindus believe it is profane to eat cows.

You can see why this rumor would make both Muslims and Hindus fighting mad. Calling this rumor "a falsehood about religious insensitivity" is down-playing things a lot.


Posted 2015-03-07T14:54:25.137

Reputation: 23 316