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I was reading an article on the sepoy mutiny in India which says,"In Britain and in the West, it was almost always portrayed as a series of unreasonable and bloodthirsty uprisings spurred by falsehoods about religious insensitivity." The author of the article is an English, by "religious insensitivity" does he mean that the mutiny was against Christians?
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It's about what caused the mutiny. A Wikipedia page says, "Others have stressed that by 1857, some Indian soldiers, reading the presence of missionaries as a sign of official intent, were convinced that the Company was masterminding mass conversions of Hindus and Muslims to Christianity."
– Damkerng T. – 2015-03-07T15:05:38.7101No. You have to parse the sentence in the context in which it is written. The sentence cites what a group of people (Britain and in the West) thought about what may have caused the rebellion (falsehoods about religious insensitivity)- not what actually caused it (British rule), nor how it has come to be viewed (the first outbreak of the independence movement) by some other people (Indians). – Gary – 2015-03-07T16:13:21.030
By the way, it [the insensitivity] involves Christians, but is not against Christians. – Gary – 2015-03-07T16:20:59.667
2This question needs more background information included in the question. – user3169 – 2015-03-07T17:17:52.000