6
2
Source: Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball Company [1892], judgement of Lindley LJ
But there is another view. Does not the person who acts upon this advertisement and accepts the offer ♦ put himself to some inconvenience at the request of the defendants? Is it nothing to use this ball three times daily for two weeks according to the directions at the request of the advertiser? Is that to go for nothing?
I tried ELU. Am I right that this is a negative interrogative, and that Lindley LJ is just asking rhetorically: 'Does not the person .... put himself to some inconvenience ...'?
Why or why not should not be situated where I have inserted ♦ (ie the lozenge)? What differs?
PS: This Reddit post explicates this older syntax.
+1. Thanks. Would you please clarify how doesn't differs? Based on your answer above, I'm guessing that the only difference relates to
Now the auxiliary is the single word *doesn't*, so if we apply subject-auxiliary inversion
in your other linked answer. In other words, the contracted Doesn't ...? only involves subject-auxiliary inversion and matches with ... does not. Whereas Does not... above involves Heavy Noun Phrase Shift? – AYX.CLDR – 2014-12-17T10:29:19.777@LawArea51Proposal-Commit I updated my answer. – snailplane – 2014-12-17T11:10:24.237
@snailboat Thank you effusively! I especially cherish your update because my comment and guess above look wrong! – AYX.CLDR – 2014-12-17T11:12:10.833
I wonder whether it's preferable to use doesn't or does not before Heavy Noun Phrases, or they would be equal in sense. – CowperKettle – 2014-12-17T12:08:12.790
1@CopperKettle Does not is only possible in particularly formal style, usually in written English but occasionally in prepared speeches and the like. – snailplane – 2014-12-17T12:11:10.213
Rhetorical 'gravity' (or some might say 'ponderousness') can allow the shift even if the subject isn't "heavy". – Tᴚoɯɐuo – 2014-12-17T12:25:52.680