The first phrase is OK. We say a naked man, woman, body, etc. On the other hand, the appropriate word for a picture, movie, scene, beach, etc. involving naked people is nude. So we can say a nude picture of a woman instead of a naked picture of a woman.
I don't think that the second phrase is more popular than the first one. It sounds substandard if we say "a naked picture of a woman". It is true that the adjective naked is a synonym of nude, but they are usually used in different senses. I think we can say a nude or naked man or woman, but we can not use naked for a picture, painting, model, etc. representing a human figure in art or any place or thing involving people who are wearing no clothes (beach, scene, movie, etc.)
1I understand both expressions, the first seems more logical, and I would understand the second typically meaning the same as the first. However, "naked" could also refer to the physical form of the picture (without plastic/glass protection, or without a frame) or to the composition/style (using bold colors, stark contrast, bold lines). Compare "the naked truth". Hence, "a naked picture of a clothed woman" isn't necessarily a contradiction. – david – 2015-10-09T15:23:09.137
2It might be helpful if you listed some actual example sentences you found. This really needs some context. – user3169 – 2014-10-01T03:52:32.293
2
I don’t think this is unclear. I think meatie is having trouble understanding how the adjective “naked” is applied to “picture” in the latter phrasing, which is indeed very common.
– Tyler James Young – 2014-10-01T18:26:38.3331@user3169 I disagree. In this case, either phrase is immediately recognized (by me, anyway) as a valid, ubiquitous construction. The question, as written, restricts the focus to the grammatical issue at hand. I’m going to edit the question to make that focus more clear. – Tyler James Young – 2014-10-01T18:50:38.807
@TylerJamesYoung I think it is unclear whether this is a question about grammar or idioms. The difference being that grammatically only one is correct, while both are idiomatically valid. – Jeremy S – 2014-10-01T21:40:33.193
@Jeremy It seems clear that OP knows that only the former is proscriptively correct, so the issue lies in understanding the idiomatic correctness of the latter (which someone has yet to explain). – Tyler James Young – 2014-10-01T21:47:07.903
2This is called hypallage. – snailplane – 2014-10-02T01:26:40.817
@Jeremy They're both grammatically correct, by the way. – snailplane – 2014-10-02T07:56:00.253
1@snailboat I would love to see an answer constructed around that knowledge. – Tyler James Young – 2014-10-02T14:54:53.363
Maybe I'm wrong but I would say sentence 2 is nonsense. – rogermue – 2015-01-30T19:13:30.927