Does "most exclusive emphasis" need a "the" in front of it?


Does this sentence look grammatically incorrect to you?

The weakness of the Turner theory is that it places most exclusive emphasis on the romantic idealism.

A friend of mine asked if this sentence seems grammatically incorrect to me. From what he knows the bold part of the sentence, most exclusive emphasis, should be grammatically or semantically incorrect.

Is it because it's missing "the"?

Will Park

Posted 2018-09-06T09:17:49.823

Reputation: 13



Used like this, most means "almost all", and not a superlative at all. Technically you can say most in this context and while it is syntactically valid, most as in "almost all" doesn't really fit here.

My guess is that the writer intended to use "the most exclusive emphasis" but omitted the "the".

In short, syntactically valid, but semantically incorrect.


Posted 2018-09-06T09:17:49.823

Reputation: 1 882