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I don't understand this particular use of the gerund yet. To me, such a phrase (the first) sounds more like a person is already voting for John Doe, in the present, not that they will do it in the future. Please explain it to me.
Seu Madruga
Posted 2018-04-13T02:52:23.727
Reputation: 131
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English has far more tenses, and especially more 'progressive tenses' than other languages.
To a native speaker, "I'm voting for John Doe" feels like the equivalent of "I am going to vote for John Doe", which means "I will vote for John Doe".
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The Purdue Owl 1 identifies such constructions as "the future in relation to the present":
For example, I'm hungry, therefore I'm going to eat.
Consider also these examples of future tense:
I'm going to France in May.
I'm having dinner with Jose on Thursday.
I'm going to college in September.
Xanne
Posted 2018-04-13T02:52:23.727
Reputation: 285
1
It depends where the person who is saying this is at.
Before going to the voting booth -
I will vote for John Doe.
In the voting booth speaking to someone else (probably not legal) -
I am voting for John Doe.
However this can also express an intention before voting, meaning -
I am expecting/planning to vote for John Doe.
Later that day -
I voted for John Doe.
Only the last one is past tense.
user3169
Posted 2018-04-13T02:52:23.727
Reputation: 29 679
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This use of the gerund expresses an immediate future or a future that depends only on your decision.
Carlos Arturo Serrano
Posted 2018-04-13T02:52:23.727
Reputation: 181
0
The grammar was already well explained. Additionally, they have the same meaning because once the action is finished (the voting), John Doe will have your vote.
virolino
Posted 2018-04-13T02:52:23.727
Reputation: 8 146