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What, according to the functionalist, is the difference between things which merely have functional roles and things whose functional roles amount to their having a mind?
Different people may interpret identical events or stimuli differently due to their having a mind that differs from your own.
Which part of English grammar stipulates using their in these sentences? For me it should be either "to them having a mind" or "to their having of a mind."
To my ear "*due to their having of a mind that differs from your own*" sounds better. Would it be correct? – Graduate – 2013-11-18T00:04:30.613
2@Graduate It is grammatically justifiable but idiomatically flat wrong. – StoneyB on hiatus – 2013-11-18T00:43:39.690
Some people (esp older ones) have a problem with the fact that language changes over time. I think the evidence suggests it's really just a matter of their/them being behind the times*. I also think this is one of those rare occasions where the question is very incisive, and might be better posed on ELU.
– FumbleFingers Reinstate Monica – 2013-11-18T01:05:50.677...in fact, as I now see, it has been raised there. But it's a good Q, and I bet you could give a better A.
– FumbleFingers Reinstate Monica – 2013-11-18T01:07:42.183@snailboat: Yes, but you see what I mean. This really is one of those Q's where it's good to see it on ELL, but it's not exactly trivial - even to native speakers. – FumbleFingers Reinstate Monica – 2013-11-18T01:10:59.607
@FumbleFingers Oh, I agree with your comments. I didn't mean to imply otherwise! (Sorry, I'm a bit out of it today, so I'm not sure exactly what I wrote.) – snailplane – 2013-11-18T03:19:01.973