Using did +verb instead of the past form of the verb

7

I have a sentence:

No sooner did we get to our car than the thunderstorm began.

Is it okay to use did we get? It sounds very natural for me, but I am not sure whether or not such grammar construction is allowed. So is it right to write this way instead of we got?

ohidano

Posted 2017-03-08T14:23:24.380

Reputation: 580

Not only is it OK, but No sooner we got would actually be incorrect. I'm not sure I know the name for the actual kind of construction used here, though. – stangdon – 2017-03-08T15:00:00.737

Answers

2

No sooner did we get ...

In modern English the use of the verb to do plus another verb is used as a way of avoiding having to reverse the normal subject-verb order of a sentence.

The alternative 'No sooner got we ...' is archaic, it occurs in Shakespearean English.

So, in Modern English whenever the normal subject-verb-object would be changed by an adverbial clause or by a question the verb to do is used to avoid this and maintain the normal order.

Do you understand?

As opposed to:

Understand you?

No longer do we use this word order

As opposed to:

No longer use we this word order.

Chris M

Posted 2017-03-08T14:23:24.380

Reputation: 1 353

So, is this right: No sooner did we get to our car than the thunderstorm began.? – ohidano – 2017-03-08T19:43:34.837

<<In modern English the use of the verb to do plus another verb is used as a way of avoiding having to reverse the normal subject-verb order of a sentence.>> Hence, "No sooner did we get to our car than the thunderstorm began." is wrong and "No sooner we got to our car than the thunderstorm began." is right. Did I get the point? – ohidano – 2017-03-08T19:55:26.117

No sooner did we get to our car .... is correct. – Chris M – 2017-03-08T22:16:21.430

However, 'As soon as we got to our car the thunderstorm began' works. – Chris M – 2017-03-08T22:20:37.433

Look out for the word than. – Chris M – 2017-03-08T22:22:01.860

You say that <<No sooner did we get to our car .... is correct.>>, but at the same time you say that <<in Modern English whenever the normal subject-verb-object would be changed by an adverbial clause or by a question the verb to do is used to avoid this and maintain the normal order.>>. So verb do just breaks the order without it we would have subject - we, after it verb - get, but instead we have verb - do, subject - we. What is the point of all this? – ohidano – 2017-03-08T23:56:46.200