Not all words ending in -able have corresponding English verbs. Some of them come from Latin. – sumelic – 2017-01-05T18:46:32.783

Interesting question. But no, amenable doesn't mean "capable of being amended". Merriam-Webster says "Amenable is a legacy of Anglo-French and derives ultimately from Latin minari, meaning "to threaten." Since 1596, English speakers have been using it in courtrooms and writings of law with the meaning "answerable," as in "citizens amenable to the law." It later developed the meanings "suited" and "responsive". It also came to be used of people with a general disposition to be agreeable or complaisant."

I think I'm going to have to vote to close this question, because it's something that can be answered simply by referring to the definition. – stangdon – 2017-01-05T18:50:58.490

Am I missing something here? Where does OP get that /d/ from? Just as the base verb for *dependable* is *defend*, if there were a base verb for *amenable* it would be *amen. Which has been used as a verb ([The congregation “amened” him at every opportunity during his sermon*](https://www.google.com/search?tbm=bks&q=%22congregation+amened%22), for example), so arguably a preacher who wants to deliver memorable "soundbytes" might be interested in making sure his sermon contains lots of "amenable" elements.