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I have to transfer this sentence from reported speech into direct speech:
Tom had had a car accident the week before and he had been ill since then.
Is there a difference in meaning between these two sentences?
- Tom: "I had a car accident last week and I have been ill since then."
- Tom: "I had a car accident a week ago and I have been ill since then."
Are both sentences correct. Or can " a week ago" only be used in end position and may not be followed by a secend sentence connected with and?
They mean more or less the same thing. A week ago means 7 days ago (or thereabouts). Last week means last calendar week. If it is Sunday, the day before (Saturday) is part of last week. – Mick – 2016-10-06T07:51:46.267
Thanks for your answer!
But I have a further question: What does the week before in the sentence in indirect speech mean exactly? – None – 2016-10-06T08:26:43.290
Beyond my pay grade, I'm afraid. You need an expert. – Mick – 2016-10-06T08:30:31.877
@Chris - Ask a separate question as a separate question, i.e. click "Ask a Question" again. I've removed your "further question" from this one. – AndyT – 2016-10-06T11:37:36.007