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Here's a question I read in a book:
Most of the non-Western countries have been subject either to total colonial rule or varying degrees of economic control.
The question is whether the bold part requires improvement or not.
I feel that have been subject to either should be the correct answer, but the book says that have been either subjected to is the correct answer. So, I am confused.
Welcome to ELL.SE. Is your question about subject to versus subjected to or about word either? It is not clear as written. – choster – 2016-09-27T17:24:12.637
@choster Thanks for replying. My question is about the whole bold phrase of the sentence. If the bold phrase in the question is correct, or should it be replaced by the other bold phrase. – PSmita – 2016-09-27T17:27:16.013
This native US English speaker thinks that both versions are fine in informal speech, actually. Subject to means "being under domination, control, or influence", so that looks OK. As for the word order, maybe one is technically more correct than the other, but in everyday speech I think both are fine.
– stangdon – 2016-09-27T17:29:24.523@stangdon so which option is technically more correct? – PSmita – 2016-09-27T17:30:54.703